IBM 000-298 考试题库
1.Which of the following statements is valid about the Broker Archive Editor?
A:Message flows can be added that contain errors.
B:Message flows can be added that do not contain an input node.
C:Server and server configuration properties can be edited and updated.
D:It is used to edit and update configurable properties of the physical broker.
E:It is used to add or remove message flows and message sets to or from the bar file.
Correct Answers: D, E
2.The Getting Started Wizard simplifies the creation of a default configuration by creating
which of the following?
A:Broker database
B:User Name Server
C:Broker collective
D:WebSphere MQ channels
E:WebSphere MQ listener
F:Configuration Manager
Correct Answers: A, E, F
3.Brokers A, B and C are all members of the same collective for which the topology
configuration has been deployed successfully. An administrator adds a fourth broker D and
uses the Topology Editor to connect it to C only. Assuming there are no other brokers in the
domain, if the new topology configuration is deployed using the "delta" option, how many
brokers will receive updates?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
Correct Answers: B
4.From the Message Brokers toolkit, which of the following views can be used to determine
that a deployed message flow has stopped?
A: Alerts
B: Event Log
C: Properties
D: Broker Domain
Correct Answers: A
5.A deployed message flow is exhibiting problems. Which of the following are features of
the flow debugger that will help the user?
A:Start user trace on the flow.
B:Add a trace node into the flow.
C:Change the domain of the message.
D:Step through the ESQL in the message flow.
E:View the content of the message progressing through the flow.
Correct Answers: D, E
6.Inclusion of which of the following nodes in a message flow will NOT enable origin
support in the collection of statistics and accounting data?
A: Compute
B: Database
C: FlowOrder
D: Filter
Correct Answers: C
7.Which of the following statements are true when planning to add brokers to a broker
domain?
A:The Administrator id on Windows cannot be used.
B:The mqm group is created automatically during the install.
C:The DataSourceUserID must be a member of the local mqbrkrs group.
D:The user id used in the install is used to create the Broker databases.
E:The user id used to create the Broker must have Administrator authority.
Correct Answers: A, E
8.Which of the following pieces of information is required when creating a User Name
Server?
A: Refresh interval
B: Queue manager name
C: Security domain name
D: Authentication protocol data source
Correct Answers: B
9.An administrator wishes to use the "Remove Deployed Children" action to ensure that an
execution group is empty. The administrator right-clicks on the execution group in the
"Domains" view of the Message Brokers Toolkit, but there is no "Remove Deployed Children"
option displayed. What is the MOST probable cause?
A: The broker is not running.
B: The execution group has nothing deployed to it.
C: The option can only be invoked at the broker level.
D: The option is only available in the "Broker Administration Navigator" view.
Correct Answers: B
10.Which of the following statements is valid about a WebSphere Business Integration
Message Broker collective?
A: A collective routes all publications to all member brokers.
B: A collective is required to support publish/subscribe services.
C: A collective can contain a broker that is contained in another collective.
D: A collective is a set of two or more brokers that are directly connected to each other.
Correct Answers: D
IBM 000-342 考试题库
1.The DSNR security class is used to control access to:
A: data sets
B: the Daemon Server
C: DB2 subsystem
D: DB2 databases and tables
Correct Answers: C
2.Which of the following approaches is most effective for determining DB2 performance
issues?
A: Using the console to display bufferpools, databases, and threads
B: Adding timestamps to the Java code before and after SQL statements
C: Taking a 'snapshot' of the database objects being monitoring using a tool such as DB2
Performance Monitor
D: Analyzing SMF records using a batch reporting tool such as DB2 Performance Monitor
Correct Answers: D
3.Which of the following CICS System resources are needed to use the WebSphere for
zOS connectors?
A:Connection
B:File
C:Program
D:Session
E:TCPIPService
Correct Answers: A, D
4.The MVS command to complete the bootstrap process after running the first Interface
Repository client is:
A: S BBODMN.DAEMON01
B: S BBODMN.DAEMON01,PARMS='-OBBCBI WARM'
C: S BBODMN.DAEMON01,PARMS='-ORBCBI COLD'
D: S BBODMN.DAEMON01,PARMS='STARTTYPE COLD'
Correct Answers: C
5.A portion of WebSphere Application Server V4.0.1 for zOS and OS/390 administrative
information is stored within DB2. When using the WebSphere installation panels, JCL is
created to initialize DB2. Which of the following actions is NOT performed within the generated
JCL?
A: Creation of a DB2 database
B: Creation of DB2 tablespaces and tables
C: Binding of WebSphere plans/packages
D: Creation of a DB2 STOGROUP
E: Creation of DB2 bufferpools
Correct Answers: E
6.A WebSphere J2EE Server is experiencing java.lang.OutOfMemoryError exceptions.
Which of the following actions will likely correct the problem?
A: Set JVM_ENABLE_VERBOSE_GC=1 in the J2EE server's current.env file.
B: Increase the value specified for JVM_HEAPSIZE in the J2EE server's current.env file.
C: Increase the value specified for MIN_SRS from 1 to 10 in the J2EE server's current.env
file.
D: Specify a value for JVM_MINHEAPSIZE that is half as large as that specified for
JVM_HEAPSIZE in the J2EE server's current.env file.
Correct Answers: B
7.Which document contains information on how to program a connector call to CICS?
A: CICS TS Application Programming Reference
B: WebSphere Assembling J2EE Applications
C: WebSphere Systems Management Scription API
D: WebSphere for zOS Connectors Installation and Usage Guide
Correct Answers: D
8.In order to ensure enough capacity to process all Naming requests, which of the
following should be specified for the Naming application environment definition?
A: Limit on starting server address space for a subsystem instance = no limit
B: Limit on starting server address space for a subsystem instance = single address space
per limit
C: Limit on starting server address space for a subsystem instance = single address space
per system
D: Limit on starting server address space for a subsystem instance = single address space
per sysplex
Correct Answers: A
9.The fragment of the contents of an application.xml in an EAR file are as follows:
department1and2
ejb1.jar
ejb2.jar
ejb3.jar
web1.war
department1
web2.war
department2
Which statement is TRUE?
A: The EAR file is invalid because there are more EJB jar files than there are matching
WAR files.
B: The EAR file contains three EJB jar files that each contain an EJB and two WAR files.