2019年湖南省张家界市中考英语真题及答案.doc

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2019 年湖南省张家界市中考英语真题及答案第一部分听力 (共三节，满分 20 分) (2019 湖南张家界)第一节(共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分) 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你有 5 秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，每小题有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 1. What’s the weather like? A. It’s rainy. B. It’s sunny. C. It’s cloudy. 2. Who is a football fan? A. Alex. B. Ben. C. Rob. 3. Where are the speakers? A. In a bookstore. B. In a restaurant. C. In a flower store. 4. How often does Ben exercise? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 5. When doesn’t the girl like to drive? A. Both B and C. B. When she is tired. C. When the weather is bad. (2019 湖南张家界)第二节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分) 听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你有时间阅读各个小题。每个小题 5 秒钟；听完后，每小题有 5 秒钟作答时间。每段对话读两遍。听第 6 段对话，回答第 6 和第 7 两上小题。 6. What holiday is on Sunday? A. Father’s Day. B. Mother’s Day. C. Women’s Day. 7. What is Kate going to do for her mother? A. Send a card. B. Buy a present. C. Send flowers. 听第 7 段对话，回答第 8 至第 10 三个小题。 8. What does the girl have from Ben? A. A picture. B. A postcard. C. A letter. 9. Where’s Ben? A. In New York. B. In Beijing. C. In Pairs (巴黎) 10. What does Ben say? A. The city is expensive. B. He likes the city’s food. C. He doesn’t like the city. (2019 湖南张家界)第三节 (共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分) 听下面一段独白。根据所听内容填空，完成表格。听独白前，你有 25 秒钟时间阅读表格中的内容。听完后有 25 秒钟作答时间。独白读两遍。 Today’s homework: Write a composition (作文) Title (标题) Why to write 11. ________________ As a Father’s Day 12. _____________ What to write 13. ________________ How many words 14. ___________________ When to submit(递交) Before Friday How to submit 15. ________________________ 第二部分语言知识运用(共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分) 通读下面短文，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A(2019 湖南张家界)

You plan a date with a friend. But something happens. You ? You can let your friend know. Send a text message. You can say, “I am coming. But I am running late.” Then apologize (道歉). Say, “ 19 ”. Then give a reason. “Traffic is very bad today.” Everyone is late sometimes. But always try to be on time! arrive on time. What can you 16 17 18 Do you have trouble being on time? You can do some things to avoid being late. Give yourself plenty of to get to a place. How much time do you need? Decide that, and then add five or ten minutes. You never alarms. When the first the door. Then ready to go. When the second alarm rings, walk 23 21 22 B. mustn’t 20 know when something will delay (延误) you. To help you keep on schedule, set alarm rings, stop working and you will be on time. 16. A. can’t 17. A. say 18. A. him 19. A. Hello 20. A. money 21. A. two 22. A. getting 23. A. on B. I’m sorry B. time B. three B. get B. in C. Thank you C. reasons C. four C. / B. do B. her C. shouldn’t C. him or her C. give C. out 体裁：说明文话题：8 人际交往 26. 社会行为词数：161 【主旨大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了赴约迟到的处理方法及如何避免赴约迟到。 16. A 考查情态动词辨析。由上句 But something happens 可知“你不按时到达”。 17. B 考查动词辨析。根据下文所列举的迟到后应当做的事，可知此处是问“你可以做什么呢”？ 18. C 考查代词辨析。文章中没有点明朋友的性别。 19. B 考查交际用语。由上一句“Then apologize”，可知应当说“I’m sorry”. 20. B 考查名词辨析。根据下一句“How much time do you need?”可知“给自己留充足的到达一个地方的时间”。 21. A 考查数词辨析。根据下文所列的“When the first …; When the second …”可知是设置两次闹钟。 22. B 考查祈使句。祈使句以动词原形开头；由并列连词 and 可知是两个动作的并列。 23. C 考查介词和副词辨析。在闹钟第一次响时，要停止工作，做好走的准备；在闹钟第二次响时，要走出门。 B(2019 湖南张家界) Do you use good manners? Do you treat others well? Do you say “please” and “thank you”? You Good. Then you respect (尊重) others. You 25 their feelings. That is important. You can let others talk. Listen and don’t interrupt (打断). Maybe someone is 27 politely. 24 ? can be polite. . You can still listen 26 Using good manners makes people happy. It shows you respect them. Using bad manners can make them mad. But when something bad happens to you, you can still be polite. You don’t have to get mad. Shouting loudly or using bad language anything. 28 Saying “ 29 ” is also good manners. When you bump (撞) into someone , you should say, “Excuse me.” When you need to walk in front of someone, say, “Excuse me.” Then people will respect you, too. 24. A. are 25. A. think about 26. A. No one 27. A. silent 28. A. helps 29. A. please B. Someone B. boring B. does help B. thank you C. doesn’t help C. excuse me B. do B. talk about C. hear about C. Everyone C. funny C. have 30

30. A. by accident B. by mistake C. by the way 体裁：说明文话题：8 人际交往 26. 社会行为词数：148 【主旨大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了如何在人际交往中做到有礼貌。 24. B 考查动词的时态。由上文以Ｄo 引导的一般疑问句可知，是表示经常性的动作，所以用一般现在时。do 代替上文句中的 use, treat 和 say。 25. A 考查短语辨析。句意：你考虑他们的感受。think about 考虑；talk about 谈论；hear about 得知。故 A 项符合题意。 26. C 考查不定代词辨析。No one 没有人；someone 某人；everyone 每个人。句意：每个人都可以很有礼貌。故由句意可知 C 项符合题意。 27. B 考查形容词辨析。silent 很少说话的；boring 令人乏味的；funny 有趣的。根据下句“You can still listen politely”可推断出“也许有的人是令人乏味的。” 28. C 考查谓语结构形式。句意：大声喊叫或者使用不好的语言没有任何帮助。doesn’t help anything =help nothing。 29. C 考查交际用语。根据后文“When you need to walk in front of someone, say,‘Excuse me. ’”可知，说“excuse me”也是有礼貌的。 30. A 考查短语辨析。by accident 偶然；by mistake 由于出差错；by the way 顺便说一下。句意：如果你偶然撞到别人，你应该说“Excuse me”。第三部分阅读理解(共两节，满分 40 分) 第一节(共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分) 阅读下面材料，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A(2019 湖南张家界) Look at this newspaper page. Read about December holiday events in one town. Then answer the questions: Holiday Events This Week Monday, December 12 Crafts Projects For kids ages 5 to 12 Library, 4 p.m. Saturday, December 17 Holiday Fair Do last-minute shopping Town Hall, 11 a.m. Friday, December 16 Holiday Concert Hear the chorus sing High School, 6 p.m. 31. Which event is only for kids? Sunday, December 18 Benefit Breakfast Bring cons to give Clothes shop, 9 a.m. A. Crafts Projects. B. Holiday Concert. C. Benefit Breakfast. 32. What time does the breakfast start? A. 4 p.m. B. 11 a.m. C. 9 a.m. 33. Which event is on Saturday? A. Holiday Fair. B. Holiday Concert. C. Benefit Breakfast. 34. Where is the Holiday Concert? A. In the library. B. In the high school. C. In Town Hall. 体裁：应用文话题：9 计划与安排 10. 节假日活动 29. 安排 31. 庆祝活动词数：73 【主旨大意】本文是一篇应用文。主要介绍了十二月份要安排的四个假期事件。

31. A 细节理解题。根据第一个表格中“For kids ages 5 to 12.”可知答案选 A。 32. C 细节理解题。根据第四个表格中“Clothes shop, 9 a.m.”可知答案选 C。 33. C 细节理解题。根据第四个表格中“Sunday, December 18 ”可知答案选 C。 34. B 细节理解题。根据第三个表格中“Friday, December 16 ”可知答案选 B。 B(2019 湖南张家界) Joe Bot and Rob Ot are robots. They are also best friends. The two pals live on a faraway planet. They are characters in a new book series (系列). The books are graphic (绘画) novels. They are written by Russ Bolts and illustrated (插图) by Jay Cooper. The first two Bots books are in stores now. 35. What is the name of the book series? A. Joe Bot and Rob Ot B. Two Robots C. Bots 36. Who is the writer of the Bots books? A. Joe Bot. B. Russ Bolts. C. Jay Cooper. 37. Who are Joe Bot and Rob Ot? A. They are robots. C. They are characters in a new book series. B. They are best friends. 体裁：说明文话题：24 故事与诗歌 85. 小说词数：75 【主旨大意】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了绘画小说 Joe Bot and Rob Ot 的相关情况。 35. A 细节理解题。根据文章第一句话可知，这部新书系列的名字是 Joe Bot and Rob Ot。 36. B 细节理解题。由文中“They are written by Russ Bolts”可知是 Russ Bolts 写的。 37. C 细节理解题。根据文中“They are characters in a new book series”可知答案选 C。 C(2019 湖南张家界) Anvitha Vgay, 9, can build an app. With the help of You Tube videos, the young techies from Melbourne, Australia, learned to code (编程) at age 7. Soon, she was trying her hand at making apps. “When I first got my iPad, I was fascinated by all the apps on it,” she said, “It wasn’t long before I wanted to create my own.” She built her first two apps with her younger sister in mind. Smartkins Animals helps children identify (识别) more than 100 animals and their sounds. Smartkins Rainbow Colors teaches kids colors. Each app has been downloaded thousands of times. 38. When did Anvitha begin to learn to make apps? A. At the age of 7. B. At the age of 8. C. At the age of 9. 39. For whom did Anvitha build her first two apps? A. For her brother. B. For her sister. C. For herself. 40. What is Smartkins Animals? A. A toy. B. An app. C. An apple. 41. What does Smartkins Rainbow Colors teach kids? A. Colors. 体裁：说明文 B. Animals. C. Animals’ sounds. 话题：22. 科普知识与现代技术词数：108

23 历史与社会 78. 发明与技术 81. 著名人物【主旨大意】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了澳大利亚九岁的女孩 Anivtha Vgay 建立一个 App 的故事。 38. A 细节理解题根据文中“learned to code (编程) at age 7. Soon, she was trying her hand at making apps.” 可知她七岁开始学习编程。 39. B 细节理解题由文中“She built her first two apps with her younger sister in mind.”可知答案选 B。 40. B 推理判断题根据文中“Each app has been downloaded thousands of times.” 可推断出 Smartkins Animals 和 Smarkins Rainbow 是两个 app。 41. A 细节理解题由文中“Smartkins Rainbow Colors teaches kids colors.”可知答案选 A。 D(2019 湖南张家界) We all know that healthy food is good for our bodies. But most people don’t know it is also good for the mind! What we eat doesn’t just affect (影响) the way we look. It also affects the way we think and remember things. Doctors have said fish like mackerel(马鲛鱼) and salmon (鲑鱼) are good for the brain. These fish have special fats that help children’s brain to grow. They also help to keep adults’ memories sharp. Some green vegetables are also good for the brain. They have a lot of vitamins (维生素) the brain needs. But don’t think if you eat a lot of salmon, you’ll never have to study again! The truth is, these foods don’t make you smarter. But they do keep your brain healthy, and a healthy brain is easier to use. 42. Healthy food is __________. A. only good for our bodies C. not only good for our bodies, but also for the mind B. only good for the mind 43. Why is salmon good for children? A. Because it is from the ocean. C. Because it has special fats that help children’s brain to grow. B. Because it helps children to become smarter. 44. What does the underlined word “sharp” mean? A. good B. poor C. bad 45. What would be the best title for the article? B. Feed Your Brain A. The Best Food— Fish. C. How to Make Your Children Smart. 体裁：说明文话题：13. 卫生与健康 43. 健康饮食词数：150 【主旨大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了经常食用几种鱼类对人类大脑的影响。 42. C 细节理解题根据文中“We all know that healthy food is good for our bodies. But most people don’t know it is also good for the mind!”可知健康的饮食不仅对我们的身体有好处，而且对我们的大脑也有好处。 43. C 细节理解题由文中“These fish have special fats that help children’s brain to grow.”可知吃鲑鱼有助于孩子大脑发育。 44. A 词义猜测题由前文可知这些鱼类对孩子的大脑有好处。再根据“These fish have special fats that help children’s brain to grow.”可知 sharp 表示“good”的意思。 45. C 标题归纳题这篇文章主要介绍了经常食用几种鱼类对人类大脑尤其是孩子大脑的影响。 (2019 湖南张家界)第二节 (共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分) 阅读下面的短文，根据所读内容回答问题。 You can make the world a brighter place. How? Here are a few ideas. Which have you tried? Which would you like to try? You can volunteer.

Clean up litter in a park. Pick up plastic on a beach. Lend a helping hand to a neighbor in need. You can raise money. Hold a bake sale. Run a lemonade stand. You can donate the money you earn. It can help a cause you care about. You can lead a food drive. Get your friends together. Collect canned food. Ask neighbors to donate too. Bring the canned goods to a food bank in your own. You can donate. Do you have clothes that no longer fit? Do you have toys you no longer play with? Give them to a local shelter. 46. Which have you tried? ____________________ 47. Which would you like to try? ____________________ 48. Who can make the world a brighter place? ____________________ 49. How can you make the world a brighter place? ___________________ 50. Which title is better, Ways to Give or Ways to Take? ___________________ 体裁：说明文话题：27. 生活技能词数：130 【主旨大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了几种如何让世界变得更加美好的方法。 46. 答案不唯一，考生根据自己实际情况作答。 47. 答案不唯一，考生根据自己实际情况作答。 48. Everybody who follows the ideas. 文章中的“you”表示每个人；文章中提供了可以让世界更加美好的方法。任何按这种方法做的人都可以让世界更加美好。 49. 答案不唯一，考生根据自己实际情况作答。 50. Ways to Give 这篇文章所列举的四种方式主要是要求向别人提供帮助。第四部分写作 (共两节，满分 25 分) (2019 湖南张家界)第一节补全对话(共 5 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分) 阅读下面对话，根据上下文补全对话内容。 M: Hi, Tina! W: 51. __________________, Steve! M: What do you do in your free time? W: 52. ____________________ M: Really? 53. ____________________ W: I play tennis at a club near my apartment. M: Oh yeah? 54. __________________ W: My sister. Do you want to play tennis with me sometimes? M: 55. ____________. I’d live to. 话题：业余活动 51. Hi/ Hello 52. I play tennis. 根据后面的句子“I play tennis at...t”可知此处是说打网球。 53. Where do you play it? 由答语中的 at a club near my apartment 可知此句是对地点进行提问的。 Hi 是打招呼用语，答语常用 Hi/ Hello。

54. Who do you play with? 根据答语中的 My sister 可知是问和谁一起打网球的。 55. Sure/ Of course … 根据答语的后一句可知此处是肯定回答。 (2019 湖南张家界)第二节书面表达(满分 15 分) 假如你是李华，请根据下面的要求写一篇短文为大家介绍你的好朋友。要求： 1. 内容必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥； 2. 文中不能出现自己的真实姓名和学校名称； 3. 不少于 50 词。体裁：应用文 One possible version: 话题：2. 家庭、朋友与周围的人词数： My name is Li Hua. Jack is my best friend. He is a tall and handsome boy. He has long straight brown hair. His mouth is small. He has big eyes and he doesn’t wear glasses. Jack is a very cool boy. He often wears jeans, a T-shirt and a pair of sports shoes. I like Jack because he is cool and fun. I like playing soccer and he is also good at it.

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