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2019四川省内江市中考英语真题及答案.doc
2019 四川省内江市中考英语真题及答案
本试卷分 A 卷(选择题)和 B 卷(非选择题)两大部分。A 卷第 1 至 9 页,满分 100 分;B
卷第 9 至 10 页,满分 60 分。全卷满分 160 分,考试时间 120 分钟。
注意事项:
1.答题前请仔细阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
2.所有试题的答案必须按题号填写在答题卡相应的位置上,在试卷上、草稿纸上答题无效。
3.考试结束后,监考人员将试卷和答题卡一并收回。
A 卷(选择题 满分 100 分)
第一部分 听力(共三节;满分 35 分)
答题时,先将答案划在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题
卡上。
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,
并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读
下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.How does the girl go to school now?
A. By bus.
B. By bike.
C. By underground.
2. What will the man do in Hong Kong?
A. Take business classes.
B. Spend his holiday.
C. Have a meeting.
3. What’s the relatonship(关系) between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student.
B. Mother and son.
C. Husband and wife.
4. Where does the conversation take place most probably?
A. In a restaurant.
B. In a cinema.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
B. Doing homework.
A. Watching TV.
C. In a classroom.
C. Cleaning the house.
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
听下面 3 段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,
并标在试卷的相应位置。在听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,
各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 至 8 三个小题。
6. What is Anna doing?
A. Shopping something.
B. Having a party.
C. Waiting for the
boy.
7. What does she think the boy shouldn’t do?
A. Take a gift.
B. Wear his uniform.
C. Invite a friend
to go.
8. What time will the boy leave home?
A. At 6:15 p.m.
B. At 6:30 p.m.
C. At 7:00 p.m.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 9 至 11 三个小题
9. Where does the man live now?
A. In London.
B. In New York.
C. In Pairs.
10. What do the tourists like most in Sanya?
A. Foods.
B. Beaches.
C. Hotels.
11. Who will the man discuss with?
A. His brother.
B. His friend.
C. His wife.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 12 至 15 四个小题
12. What did the boy do last Saturday morning?
A. He went shopping.
B. He watched a game.
C. He traveled to
Shanghai.
13. How long did the girl’s piano lesson last?
B.120 minutes.
A. 90 minutes.
14. When ewill the girl’s father come back?
C. 60 minutes.
A. This Saturday.
B. This Friday.
C. This Thurday.
15. Who took photos of the game?
A. Tina.
B. Nancy.
C. Grorge.
听下面一段独白。独白后有 5 个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项并标
在试卷的相应位置。在听独白前你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给
出 5 秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听第 9 段材料,回答第 16 至 20 五个小题
16. Where is Ben from?
A. England.
B. America.
C. France.
17. Which place did Ben go to first when he came to his new school?
A. The headmaster’s office.
B. The school hall.
C. The library.
18. What did the headmaster give Ben?
A. A geography book.
B. A new uniform.
C. A school map.
19. What color is Ben’s classroom door?
A. Blue.
B. Red.
C. White.
20. How did Ben feel about his first day at school?
A. Terrible.
B. Proud.
C. Surprised.
第二部分 基础知识运用(共两节,满分 20 分)
第一节 单项选择(共 10 小题;每小题 0.5 分,满分 5 分)
从各题所给 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出可以填入题内空白处的最佳答案,并在答题卡上将
该项涂黑。
21. I want to be ________English teacher because English is ______useful language.
A. a ; a
C. a ; an
22.— When did Neil Armstrong walk on the moon?
B. an ; a
D. an ; an
—________July 20th, 1969.
A. In
B. At
C. For
D. On
23. The book ______was written by him is very interesting.
A. who
B. whom
C. which
D. /
24. —Where is Mike?
—I saw him_______with Mr. Smith in the hallways just now.
A. to talk
B. talking
C. talked
D. talks
25. —Which is Mary’s dictionary?
—This one is ________. That one is _______.
A. hers ; mine
me
B. her ; mine
C. hers ; my
D. her ;
26. Cathy is afraid of the dog. She will run away _______she sees it.
A. ever since
D. so that
27. Tom said he _______basketball with his classmates from 4:00 to 6:00 yesterday
afternoon.
C. as soon as
B. although
A. is played
B. was playing
C. plays
D. had played
28. —_______I return the books this week?
—No, you _______. You can do that next week?
A. Must; can’t
B. May ; needn’t
C. Need ; mustn’t
D.
Must ; needn’t
29. Could you tell me ______this morning?
A. what time you had breakfast
C. how did you get there
B. where have you been
D. why will you leave earlier
30. —Shall we go to the supermarket after school? I need to buy something.
—________Let’s meet at the school gate at 5:00 p.m.
A. It doesn’t matter
C. Why not?
B. Are you OK?
D. That’s all right.
第二节 完形填空(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后所给各题的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳
选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was my 14th birthday and I would have the biggest party ever. The number of
had quickly grown from seven to seventeen. Nearly every girl in my class
31
the invitation, is was especially
. When each guest excitedly
32
33
the
was
happy.
The
34
was full of shouts and laughter. We had just finished a game of Twister
and I could feel my face turning red, because
the door, there at the front door and stood Sarah Westly—the quiet girl
. I thought about
when the door bess rang. I was so
when I
who sat next to me in music class——and she was holding a
the guest list. How did I
35
37
36
in me. But Sarah had
her to join the party. “I can’t
40
when someone showed an interest
done that. I accepted the box, a gift from Sarah, and asked
,” she said. “My dad’s waiting in the
41
I remembered that I only added a name to the
38
to invite Sarah?
39
car.” At that moment I felt bad about forgetting to invite Sarah and really wanted
her to rest for some time in my room. “Thanks, but I have to go,” she said, turning
42
towards the door. “See you Monday.”
I didn’t open the box until the party was 43
45
ceramic(陶瓷) tabby cat. It was the best gift I had received
cats. I later
didn’t know it then, but now I realize that Sarah was my best friend.
. Inside the small box was a
I didn’t like
that the gift looked exactly like Sarah’s cat, Seymour. I
44
31. A. boys
32. A. invited
33. A. made
34. A. classroom
B. guests
B. invented
B. found
C. books
C. showed
C. accepted
D. desks
D. suggested
D. passed
B. library
C. restaurant
D.living
room
35. A. surprised
36. A. touched
37. A. cat
38. A. forget
39. A. gift
40. A. still
41. A. stand
42. A. quickly
43. A. ready
interesting
B. angry
B. opened
B. toy
B. stop
B. list
B. even
B. sing
B. carefully
C. proud
C. caught
C. pen
C. hope
C. diary
C. never
C. wait
C. finally
B. successful
C. over
D. sad
D.saw
D. box
D. choose
D. box
D. only
D. stay
D. early
D.
44. A. and
45. A. took out
B. so
B. found out
C. because
C. thought out
D. though
D. put out
第三部分阅读理解(共 20 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 40 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该
项涂黑。
A
Please Take my Children to Work Day (PTCW Day) first began as holiday for
hark-working and tired stay-at-home mother to take a day off. Now, this day is fit
for my parent. It was created in 2003 and is celebrated each year on June 25, but
it isn’t a public holiday. It encourages friends and family to take care of the
children so that the stay-at-home parent can have some time to relex.
Kamehameha Day is held on June 11 each year. Kamehaeha the Great was the
monarch(君主) of Hawaii. He is famous and respected for establishing(建立) the
Kingdom of Hawaii in 1810. Kamehaeha Day is a public holiday in Hawaii, and it is
a day off for people. Schools and most businesses are closed.
D-Day is celebrated in the U.S. to memorize the Normandy landings in France on
June 6, 1944.On that day, American army and other Allied forces (盟军) fought hard
and the World War II(WWII) in Europe was over soon. It is not a public holiday.
Businesses have normal opening hours.
Flag Day is celebrated on June14 each year to honor the United States flag. On
the same day, the United States Army celebrates its birthday. Although Flag Day is
a great celebration across he country, it is not a public holiday.
46. If you are a stay-at-home parents, what can you do to relax on PTCW Day?
A. Take a day off.
C. Look after children.
B. Go to work earlier.
D. Do some housework.
47. Which is public holiday?
A. PTCW Day.
C. D-Day.
B. Kamehameha Day.
D. Flag Day.
48. When is the United States Army’s birthday?
A. On June 6.
B. On June 11.
C. On June 14.
D. On June 25.
49. What can we know about D-Day?
A. It is celebrated in France.
C. Businesses are closed for it.
B. The WW II ended before 1944.
D. The Normandy landing happened in 1944.
B
The Greens got a rather unhappy surprises when they tried to fly form Cardiff
to Lanzarote last weekend. Because of a bad mistake at the airline check-in desk,
the Greens got on the wrong flight(航班) and ended up in Ankara. So hwo did the mix-up
happen?
It was five o’clock on Sunday morning when Charlie and Kate Green arrived
at Cardiff airport with their nine-year-old daughter Tina. They checked in properly
for their flight to Lanzarote, but the check-in attendant(服务员) made a mistake
with their boarding passes and also sent them to the wrong boarding gate. Unluckily,
it was so early and the Greens were feeling os tired and they didn’t notice anything
wrong. What was worse, there weren’t nay announcements in the boarding gate area.
When the Greens finally got on the plane, Charlie and Kate Green fell asleep
at once, though there were interesting films, magazines, newspapers and music for
them to choose to spend the boring time. Little Tina took out s history book about
Rome and read. Two hours later, she fell asleep, too. The didn’t wake up until six
hours later, when the plane was landing. Suddenly, the flight attendant said.
“Welcome to Ankara!” The Greens couldn’t believe it, and little Tina was quite
unhappy. The family had to get of the plane and then pay £ 10 for tourist visa(签
证). In the end, they decided to get back home, arrive at 5:00 p.m. on the same day.
50. Where did he Greens plan to spend their weekend?
A. In Cardiff.
B. In Lanzarote.
C. In Rome.
D. In Ankara.
51. What did little Tina do first on the plane?
A. She saw a film.
C. She listened to music.
B. She went to sleep.
D. She read a history book.
52. How did the Greens feel when they arrived in Ankara?
A. Bored.
B. Excited.
C. Interested.
D.Surprised.
53. What’s the best title ofr the text?
A. What a Wrong Trip
C. The Greens’ Trip
B. A Trip to Ankara
D. How long a Trip
C
Joe Connor comes from Kinsley and works in an office in Kansas City. His job is
a typical nine-to-five, Monday-to-Friday job. So at the weekend, he does something
different. He likes traveling but he works as a volunteer too. He helps different
people for free. Every weekend, there’s a new project.
This weekend, Joe is helping to build a house. You can see him in the photo. He’s
movinga large blue panel(). It’s part of a wall. Joe isn’t a professional builder,
but that’s the interesting thing about this project. The other people are “weekend
builders” too. There “weekend builders” are from the small town of Greensburg
in Kansas. A year ago, a tormado() hit their town. After the tornado, the community
started a project to build new homes. The project is for 30 new homes. They get some
help from a building company and a group of volunteers. Joe says, “I heard about
the tornado and the new project. I knew some people in Greensburg. I wanted to help,”
Joe’s friends are here this weekend too. They’re working with Jill and Scott.
Jill and Scott are both from Pratt, and they are building their “dream house”.
Jill (on the right) is standing near his new house. He’s holding a part of the new
wall. They’re making the house that can fight against tornadoes—that’s why it
has an unusual shape.
Their house is almost ready, so next weekend, Joe is moving to a different project.
Why does he do so? “Though busy, I can help people, I can make friends and that
is fun! So, why not?” he says.
54. How long does Joe work every workday?
A. 7 hours.
B. 8 hours.
C. 9 hours.
D. 10 hours.
55. Which place did the tornado hit?
B. Kansas City.
A. Kinsley.
C. Pratt.
D. Greensburg.
56. Why does Joe choose to work as a volunteer?
A. He can make money to travel.
C. He always has lots of free time.
57. What’s the writer of the text doing?
B. The work brings him pleasure.
D. He is good at building houses.
A. Showing different projects.
C. Talking about a photo.
B. Introducing a tornado.
D. Helping build a house.
D
Students in Kenya are returning for their third term. They begin their school
year in January and it is broken up into three terms. In Kenya, in the past, students
were not required to attend school an the education was not free, either.
I taugth math, English and physics at Chamasiri Secondary School whiel I was
a teacher in Kenya. This school had four classrooms—one for each grade, Form 1,
Form 2, Form 3 and Form 4. They are equivalent (对等) to our 9th ,10th ,11th, and 12th
grade. Teachers traveled from classroom to classroom instead of the students going
from room to room. The Form 1 class had 60 students, Form 2 had 45, Form 3 had 30,
and Form 4 about 12 students. The class sizes became smaller as the grades continued
on. Why did this happen? Many families were very poor and couldn’t afford the school
fees(学费).
Most countryside schools in Kenya did not have a lot of money. As a result, there
were very few textbooks for the students to use. I had seven math texts for my Form
2 class and 14 for the Form 1 class. Anything the students needed to know was put
up on the blackboard and the students copied it down into their noetbooks. The
notebooks became the students’ textbooks.
Kenya students study ten different subject areas. Some of the students spend
over an hour running home. They do chores at home and hopefully manage to find some
time to study before it gets dark. Most familes do not have electricity and may not
even have candles for their children to study by.
Luckily, Kenya education has been becoming better and better in the past few
years. I’m sure it will have a good future.
58. Which grade does Form 3 refer to (指的是) in ther writer’s country?
A. Grade 9.
B. Grade 10.
C. Grade 11.
D. Grade 12.
59. Why did the notebooks become the students’ textbooks?
A. The students did not pay the schools.
B. The schools couldn’t afford the textbooks.
C. The students preferred to use their notebooks.
D. The teachers asked the students to take notes.
60. Why do some students run home from school?
A. They aren’t allowed to stay at school.
B. They don’t like studing in the school.
C. They hope to have more time to study.
D. They want to get candles in the stores.
61. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. In Kenya, a school year has three terms.
B. The Form 1 class had the most students.
C. Each family has electricity in Kenya.
D. Kenya education has been improving.
E
For thousands of years, humans have explored(探索) the Earth. Nowadays, we are
exploring space. Astronomers (天文学家) are modern-day explorers. Now, many
astronomers are looking for new planets and new places of humans to live in the future.
But where do astronomers start looking?
First of all, astronomers look for a star. That’s because our own Earth moves
around a star (the Sun). More importantly, it is the correct distance(距离) from
the Sun for heat and light. So when astronomers have found the star, they look at
the planets around it. In recent years, astronomers have found nearly 400 new planets
with stars. However, many of these planets are either too near to the star or too
far away.
However, if the planet is in a good position, astronomers look for three key
things: water, air and rock. Water is important because all life needs water. Humans
can drink it and they can also grow plants with water. And plants produce air for
humans to breathe and food to eat. Rock on a planet is also important. That’s because
there is often water under the rock.
After many years of scrutinizing, astronomers have found a planet that is similar
to the Earth. It’s Gliese 581g and it’s near a star. The astronomers think it has
water and rock and the average(平均的) temperature is between-310C and -120C. That’s
cold，but not colder than Antarctica or Arctic Circle, for example, Gliese 581g is
bigger than the Earth. A year on Gliese 581g is only 37 Earth days instead of 365.
But astronomers do not think there are big differences and some them thing Gliese
581g will be a new Earth. However, Gliese 581g is twenty light years from the Earth.
62. What do astronomers have to find first before starting to look for a new place
for humans to have?
A. A new star.
B. A new planet.
C. Some heat.
D. Some light.
63. What does the rock on a planet tell us?
A. The star is a right position.
B. We may discover water under it.
C. The planet is too near to the Sun.
D. There can be air around the rock.
64. What does the underlined word “scrutinizing” mean in the last paragraph?
A. discussing
B. waiting
C. looking
D.traveling
65. What’s the main idea of the text?
A. Gliese 581g is already a new Earth.
B. There are planets similar to our Earth.
C. Water, air and rock are important.
D. Astronomers are looking for a new Earth.
第三部分阅读理解(共 20 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 40 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该
项涂黑。
第四部分
句子成分(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
指出下列句子画线部分是什么句子成分,从 A、B、C、D 中选出正确答案,并在机读卡上将该
项涂黑。
66. It’s getting colder and colder these days.
A. 表语
B. 定语
C. 状语
D. 宾语
67. There are some volunteers in the park.
A. 表语
B. 宾语
C. 主语
D. 定语
68. I go to the movies once a week.
A. 宾语
B. 状语
C. 表语
D. 定语
69. It is fair to give Anna the prize in the painting competition.
A. 形式主语
C. 间接宾语
B. 直接宾语
D. 真正主语
70. We’d like more students to join the story telling club.
A. 状语
B. 直接宾语
C. 宾语补助语
D. 谓语
B 卷 (非选择题,共三节,满分 60 分)
注意事项:
1 答题前将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
2.用 0.5 毫米签字笔答在答题卡上,在试卷上答题无效。
第一节任务型阅读(共 5 小题;每小题 3 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下列短文,按照每题后的单词要求数量回答问题。
The Seed Vault(种子地窖)
A lot of countries need different kinds of seeds so that they can plant them
again. There is an important reason for this. Sometimes plants can’t grow in a
country because of bad weather or disease, so farmers need new seeds.
You can keep seeds in a “seed vault”. It’s a place at a special temperature.
The seeds don’t grow, but they can live for a long time. Norway has the biggest
seed vault in the world—the Svalbard Global Seed Vault —and it has seeds from a
lot of different countries.
The vault is on the island of Spitsbergen. The island is about one thousand
kilometers from the North Pole. It’s a very cold place so it’s good for seeds.
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